Slavs had to be labeled “inferior” to justify stealing their territory.

I don’t know who is the author of this nonsenes (Chechar?), but let’s get some facts straight:

1) It’s the other way around: Not the Germans stole Slav territoriy, but the Slavs stole German territory.
The problems began at Versailles, when Slavs grabbed regions with 90% German population (Sudetes, Danzig, Memel,…).
Hitler did make some reasonable peace offers (to the Poles): an international road and Danzig back to Germany – refused because the British wanted war.

2) The Germans lived with Slav people during centuries without too much trouble. Prag was a mainly German speaking city not so long ago (Kafka). In fact, it was the seat of the first German university.

How do you know that Hitler’s public description of the Slavic peoples as inferior was just a tactic? What evidence is there that he didn’t really look down on them?

3) So what? Polish Generals joked (before WWII) about meeting in Berlin. Considering the adversary ‘inferior’ is normal tactic in war and pre-war situations, look at allied WWII-propaganda.

The “Anti-Semitic” doctrine of the Third Reich …

4) … did not fall from blue sky. The Germans had their experience with Jews in WWI (Balfour declaration) and during Weimar. More than sufficient reasons to be “anti-semitic”.